84. Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Govern¬ment.
85. Assertion (A) : According to the Wavell Plan, the number of Hindu and Muslim mem¬bers in the Executive Council were to be equal.
Wavell thought thatthis arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.
86. Assertion (A) : River Kalinadi is an east-flowing ,river
in the southern part of India.
Reason (R) : The Deccan Plateau is higher along its
western edge and gently slopes to¬
wards the Bay of Bengal in the east.
Reason (R)
87. Assertion (A) : There are no tea plantations in any African country.
Reason (R) : Tea plants need fertile soil with high
humus.
88. Assertion (A) : A jet aircraft moving at Mach Num¬ber equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of 15 km than while moving at Mach Number equal to 1 near the sea level.
Reason (R) : The velocity of sound depends on the temperature of the surrounding me¬dium.
89. Which one of the following National Highways passes through Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh. and Orissa?
(a) NH 4 (b) NH 5
(c) NH 6 (d) NH 7
90. In the human body, which structure is the appendix attached to?
(a) The large intestine
(c) The gall bladder
(b) The small intestine (d) The stomach
91. Consider the following statements:
1. Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
2. Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sample Tests 25
92. Which one among the folloWing states of India has the lowest density of population?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(City) (River)
A. Bangkok 1. Irrawaddy
B. Phnom-Penh 2. Mekong
C. Hanoi 3. Menam (Chao Phraya)
D. Yangon 4. Red River
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
3 4 3 4
B 2 1 1 2
C
4 3 4 3
D
1 2 2 1
94. Consider the following statements:
1. Either of the two belts over the oceans at about
30" to 35" Nand S latitudes is known as Horse
Latitude.
2. Horse latitudes are low pressure belts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Which one among the following rivers is the longest?
(a) Amazon (b) Amur
(c) Congo (d) Lena
96. Which one of the following rivers originates at Amarkantak?
(a) Damodar
(c) Narmada
(b) Mahanadi (d) Tapti
97. Which one among the following major Indian cities is most eastward located?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bhopal
(c) Lueknow
(d) Benguluru (Bangalore)
98. Dalbergia species is associated with which one of the
following?
(a) Cashewnut (c) Tea
(b) Coffee (d) Rosewood
99. Out of the four southern States: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian states?
(a) Andhra Pradesh only
(b) Karnataka only
(c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka (d) Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Ans: 84. (d) 85. (d)
86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (a)
96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (c)
Monday, October 26, 2009
UPSC Examination Test Paper 2007
71. A train completes a journey with few stoppages in between at an average speed of 40 km per hour. If the train had not stopped anywhere, it would have completed th~-journey at an average speed of 60 km per hour. On an average, how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the journey?
(a) 20 minutes per hour (b) 18 minutes per hour (c) 15 minutes per hour (d) 10 minutes per hour
72. Who among the following
Finance Ministers of India?
1. V.P. Singh
3. Y.B. Chavan
have been the Union
2. 4.
R. Venkataraman Pranab Mukhe~ee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
73. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production (in million tonnes) of the given foodgrains in India?
(a) Wheat - Rice - Pulses - Coarse cereals (b) Rice - Wheat - Pulses - Coarse cereals (c) Wheat - Rice - Coarse ce~eals - Pulses (d) Rice - Wheat - Coarse cereals - Pulses
74. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined
the European Union in January 20077
(a) Bulgaria and Romania
(b) Bulgaria and Belgium
(c) Romania and Slovenia
(d) Hungary and Croatia .
75. What is the average distance (approximate) between
the Sun and the Earth?
(a) 70 x 105 km
(c) 110 x 66 km
(b) 100 x 105 km Cd) 150 x 106 km
76. Consider the following statements:
1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect,
the intersected area will have red colour.
2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the
intersected area will have blue colour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following statements:
1. A flute of smaller length produces waves of lower
frequency.
2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal
elastic waves only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Four wires of same material and of dimensions as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude separately. Which one of them will be elongated maximum?
(a) Wire of 1 m length and (b) Wire of 2 m length and (c) Wire of 3 m length and (d) Wire of 1 m length and
2 mm diameter 2 mm diameter
1.5 mm diameter 1 mm diameter
79. The average salary of 100 employees in an office is Rs 16,000 per month. The management decided to raise salary of every employee by 5% but stopped a transport allowance of Rs 800 per month which was paid earlier to every employee. What will be the new average monthly salary?
(a) Rs 16,000 (b) Rs 16,500 (c) Rs 16,800
(d) Cannot be known since data is insufficient
80. Raghu Rai is well-known for
following areas?
(a) Research in Mathematics
(b) Photography
(c) Water harvesting
(d) Pollution control
81. Which one of the following organisation won the CSIR Award for Science and Technology (S & T) Innova¬tions for Rural Development 2006?
(a) CLRI (b) IARI
(c) NDDB (d) NDRI
which one of the
82. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?
(a) London (UX)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(c) Accra (Ghana)
(d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
83. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plant
becomes modified into a pitcher?
(a) Stem (b) Leaf
(c) Stipule (d) Petiole
Directions: The following 5 (Five) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the' Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both'A and R are individually true but R is not
the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
Ans: 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b)
(a) 20 minutes per hour (b) 18 minutes per hour (c) 15 minutes per hour (d) 10 minutes per hour
72. Who among the following
Finance Ministers of India?
1. V.P. Singh
3. Y.B. Chavan
have been the Union
2. 4.
R. Venkataraman Pranab Mukhe~ee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
73. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production (in million tonnes) of the given foodgrains in India?
(a) Wheat - Rice - Pulses - Coarse cereals (b) Rice - Wheat - Pulses - Coarse cereals (c) Wheat - Rice - Coarse ce~eals - Pulses (d) Rice - Wheat - Coarse cereals - Pulses
74. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined
the European Union in January 20077
(a) Bulgaria and Romania
(b) Bulgaria and Belgium
(c) Romania and Slovenia
(d) Hungary and Croatia .
75. What is the average distance (approximate) between
the Sun and the Earth?
(a) 70 x 105 km
(c) 110 x 66 km
(b) 100 x 105 km Cd) 150 x 106 km
76. Consider the following statements:
1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect,
the intersected area will have red colour.
2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the
intersected area will have blue colour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following statements:
1. A flute of smaller length produces waves of lower
frequency.
2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal
elastic waves only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Four wires of same material and of dimensions as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude separately. Which one of them will be elongated maximum?
(a) Wire of 1 m length and (b) Wire of 2 m length and (c) Wire of 3 m length and (d) Wire of 1 m length and
2 mm diameter 2 mm diameter
1.5 mm diameter 1 mm diameter
79. The average salary of 100 employees in an office is Rs 16,000 per month. The management decided to raise salary of every employee by 5% but stopped a transport allowance of Rs 800 per month which was paid earlier to every employee. What will be the new average monthly salary?
(a) Rs 16,000 (b) Rs 16,500 (c) Rs 16,800
(d) Cannot be known since data is insufficient
80. Raghu Rai is well-known for
following areas?
(a) Research in Mathematics
(b) Photography
(c) Water harvesting
(d) Pollution control
81. Which one of the following organisation won the CSIR Award for Science and Technology (S & T) Innova¬tions for Rural Development 2006?
(a) CLRI (b) IARI
(c) NDDB (d) NDRI
which one of the
82. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?
(a) London (UX)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(c) Accra (Ghana)
(d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
83. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plant
becomes modified into a pitcher?
(a) Stem (b) Leaf
(c) Stipule (d) Petiole
Directions: The following 5 (Five) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the' Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both'A and R are individually true but R is not
the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
Ans: 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b)
General Studies Questions and Answers For You
55. Amit starts from a point A and walks to another point B, and then returns from B to A by his car and thus takes a total time of 6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car, he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways?
(a) 7 hours 45 minutes (b) 8 hours 15 mmutes (c) 8 hours 30 minutes (d) 8 hours 45 minutes
56. A and B can complete work together in 5 days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, this work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the job?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 18
57. Parimarjan Negi has excelled in whim one of the following games?
(a) Billiards (b) Swimming
(c) Chess (d) Weightlifting
58. If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written, what is the total number of times does the digit 6 appear?
(a) 138 (b) 139
(c) 140 (d) 141
59. The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of which one of the following?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) Life Insurance Corporation of India
60. Where is the famous Vijaya Vittala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical notes located?
(a) Belur (b) Bhadrachalam
(c) Hampi (d) Srirangam
61. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition
before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrati?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Who among the President?
(a) D. Ortega (c) E. Morales
following is Chile's first woman
(b) M. Bachelet (d) A. Garcia
63. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip? (a) Simlipal National Park
(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National
Park
64. What was the purpose of the Operation Sukoon
l~unched by the Government of India?
(a) Helping Indonesia in its efforts to rehabilitate the
victims of earthquake in that country
(b) Evacuating the Indian Nationals from Lebanon
during the conflict in the Middle East
(c) Assisting United Nations in its efforts to help the
civil war victims in the Darfur region of North
Africa
(d) Providing a relief package to farmers after a spate
of suicides by other farmers in Andhra Pradesh
65. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court
in India is same as that of removal of a Judge
of the Supreme Court
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent
Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh - Nagaland - Haryana (b) Nagaland - Haryana - Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh (c) Sikkim - Haryana - Nagaland - Arunachal
Pradesh
(d) Nagaland - Arunachal Pradesh - Sikkim - Haryana
67. Tarapore Committee was associated with which one of the following?
(a) Special Economic Zones
(b) Fuller capital account convertibility
(c) Foreign exchange reserves.
(d) Effect of oil-prices on the Indian economy
68. Who among the following served as the Chief Econo¬mist of the International Monetary Fund?
(a) Ashok Lahiri (b) Sumantra Ghoshal
(c) Saumitra Chaudhuri (d) Raghuram Rajan
69. Where are Shevaroy Hills located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
70. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which
one of the following?
a. Consolidated Fund of India
b. Foreign Institutional Investors
c. United Nations Development
d. Programme Kyoto Protocol
Ans: 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
(a) 7 hours 45 minutes (b) 8 hours 15 mmutes (c) 8 hours 30 minutes (d) 8 hours 45 minutes
56. A and B can complete work together in 5 days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, this work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the job?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 18
57. Parimarjan Negi has excelled in whim one of the following games?
(a) Billiards (b) Swimming
(c) Chess (d) Weightlifting
58. If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written, what is the total number of times does the digit 6 appear?
(a) 138 (b) 139
(c) 140 (d) 141
59. The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of which one of the following?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) Life Insurance Corporation of India
60. Where is the famous Vijaya Vittala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical notes located?
(a) Belur (b) Bhadrachalam
(c) Hampi (d) Srirangam
61. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition
before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrati?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Who among the President?
(a) D. Ortega (c) E. Morales
following is Chile's first woman
(b) M. Bachelet (d) A. Garcia
63. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip? (a) Simlipal National Park
(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National
Park
64. What was the purpose of the Operation Sukoon
l~unched by the Government of India?
(a) Helping Indonesia in its efforts to rehabilitate the
victims of earthquake in that country
(b) Evacuating the Indian Nationals from Lebanon
during the conflict in the Middle East
(c) Assisting United Nations in its efforts to help the
civil war victims in the Darfur region of North
Africa
(d) Providing a relief package to farmers after a spate
of suicides by other farmers in Andhra Pradesh
65. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court
in India is same as that of removal of a Judge
of the Supreme Court
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent
Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh - Nagaland - Haryana (b) Nagaland - Haryana - Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh (c) Sikkim - Haryana - Nagaland - Arunachal
Pradesh
(d) Nagaland - Arunachal Pradesh - Sikkim - Haryana
67. Tarapore Committee was associated with which one of the following?
(a) Special Economic Zones
(b) Fuller capital account convertibility
(c) Foreign exchange reserves.
(d) Effect of oil-prices on the Indian economy
68. Who among the following served as the Chief Econo¬mist of the International Monetary Fund?
(a) Ashok Lahiri (b) Sumantra Ghoshal
(c) Saumitra Chaudhuri (d) Raghuram Rajan
69. Where are Shevaroy Hills located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
70. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which
one of the following?
a. Consolidated Fund of India
b. Foreign Institutional Investors
c. United Nations Development
d. Programme Kyoto Protocol
Ans: 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
General Knowledge
41. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out
of 5 boys - A, B, C, D and E such that not one group
contains both C and D together. What is the maxi¬mum number of such different groups?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
42. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each
face carrying one different number. Further,
1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5.
3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5. 4. The face 4 is adjace~t to the face 2.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3
(b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4. (c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6 (d) None of the above
43. Each of the 3 persons is to be given sqme identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this distribution be done?
(a) 21 (c) 27
(b) 24 (d) 33
44. 6 equidistant vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equidistant horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines, and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of squares thus formed?
(a) 37 (b) 55
(c) 126 (d) 225
45.
In the figure shown above, what is the maximum number of different ways in which 8 identical balls can be placed in the small triangles 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that each triangle contains at least one ball?
(a) 32 (b) 35
(c) 44 (d) 56
46. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kenya is known for her contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics, (c) Sustainable development (d) Child development
47. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following?
(a) Cardiology (b) Influenza virus
(c) HIV / AIDS (d) Alzheimer
48. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez well-known as? (a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for
literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
49. MCA-21 is a major initiative taken up by the
Government of India in which one of the following
areas?
(a) Foreign direct investment in India
(b) Attracting international tourists
(c) e-governance
(d) Mo~rnisation of airports
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks
borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
2. A value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country
implies that there is perfectly equal income for
everyone in its population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Where was the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(b) Rhode Island (USA) (d) Nagasaki Oapan)
52. For which one of the following books did Kiran Desai win the Man Booker prize 2006?
(a) The Secret River
(b) In the Country of Men
(c) The Inheritance of Loss
(d) Mother's Milk
53. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympic Games
(c) Journalism
(d) Civil Aviation
54. A person has to completely put each of three liquids: 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of Mobile Oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any of the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required?
(a) 34 (b) 44
(c) 46 (d) None of the above
Ans: 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47 (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d)
of 5 boys - A, B, C, D and E such that not one group
contains both C and D together. What is the maxi¬mum number of such different groups?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
42. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each
face carrying one different number. Further,
1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5.
3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5. 4. The face 4 is adjace~t to the face 2.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3
(b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4. (c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6 (d) None of the above
43. Each of the 3 persons is to be given sqme identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this distribution be done?
(a) 21 (c) 27
(b) 24 (d) 33
44. 6 equidistant vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equidistant horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines, and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of squares thus formed?
(a) 37 (b) 55
(c) 126 (d) 225
45.
In the figure shown above, what is the maximum number of different ways in which 8 identical balls can be placed in the small triangles 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that each triangle contains at least one ball?
(a) 32 (b) 35
(c) 44 (d) 56
46. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kenya is known for her contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics, (c) Sustainable development (d) Child development
47. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following?
(a) Cardiology (b) Influenza virus
(c) HIV / AIDS (d) Alzheimer
48. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez well-known as? (a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for
literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
49. MCA-21 is a major initiative taken up by the
Government of India in which one of the following
areas?
(a) Foreign direct investment in India
(b) Attracting international tourists
(c) e-governance
(d) Mo~rnisation of airports
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks
borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
2. A value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country
implies that there is perfectly equal income for
everyone in its population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Where was the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(b) Rhode Island (USA) (d) Nagasaki Oapan)
52. For which one of the following books did Kiran Desai win the Man Booker prize 2006?
(a) The Secret River
(b) In the Country of Men
(c) The Inheritance of Loss
(d) Mother's Milk
53. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympic Games
(c) Journalism
(d) Civil Aviation
54. A person has to completely put each of three liquids: 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of Mobile Oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any of the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required?
(a) 34 (b) 44
(c) 46 (d) None of the above
Ans: 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47 (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d)
2007 Test Papers
29. Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?
(a) Russia (b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine (d) Uzbekistan
30. With reference to the steel industry in India in the recent times, consider the following statements:
1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared Mini
Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Who among the following wrote the book - A yodhya: 6 December 1992?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(c) Jaswant Singh
(b) P. V. Narasimha Rao (d) Arun Shourie
32. With reference to the international me~tings held in the year 2006, which of the following pairs is/ate
correctly matched?
1. NAM Summit
2. APEC Meeting
3. EU-India Summit
4. UN Climate
Change Conference
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
33. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently in news, connects which of the following?
(a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via
Bangladesh
(b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar (c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via Bhutan (d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via
Myanmar
Havana Bangkok Helsinki Geneva
34. NASA's Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
(a) Halley's Comet (b) Ha,le-Bopp
(c) Hyakutake (d) Tempel 1
35. Who among the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Cricket?
1. Wasim Akram 2. Richard Hadlee
3. Glen McGrath 4. Courtney Walsh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) I, 2, 3 and 4
36. Which one of the following places was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave's Bhoodan Movement at the beginning of the movement?
(a) Udaygiri (b) Raipur
(c) Pochampalli (d) Venkatagiri
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Company)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group
B. Tulsi R. Tanti 2. Info Edge India (which
runs naukri.com)
3. Indian (Indian Airlines)
4. Suzlon Energy
C. Shashi Ruia
D. S. Bikhchandani
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 3 2 3
D
3 2 3 2
B 4 1 1 4
C
1 4 4 1
38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
(a) Services - Industry - Agriculture (b) Services - Agriculture - Industry (c) Industry - Services - Agriculture (d) Industry - Agriculture - Services
39. Consider the following statements:
1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organisation which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO
when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40.
In how many maximum different ways can 3 identical balls be placed in the 12 squares (each ball to-jJepiaced in the exact centre of the squares and only one ball is to be placed in one square) shown in the figure given above such that they do not lie along the same straight line?
(a) 144 (c) 204
(b) 200 (d) 216
Ans: 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
(a) Russia (b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine (d) Uzbekistan
30. With reference to the steel industry in India in the recent times, consider the following statements:
1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared Mini
Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Who among the following wrote the book - A yodhya: 6 December 1992?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(c) Jaswant Singh
(b) P. V. Narasimha Rao (d) Arun Shourie
32. With reference to the international me~tings held in the year 2006, which of the following pairs is/ate
correctly matched?
1. NAM Summit
2. APEC Meeting
3. EU-India Summit
4. UN Climate
Change Conference
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
33. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently in news, connects which of the following?
(a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via
Bangladesh
(b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar (c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via Bhutan (d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via
Myanmar
Havana Bangkok Helsinki Geneva
34. NASA's Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
(a) Halley's Comet (b) Ha,le-Bopp
(c) Hyakutake (d) Tempel 1
35. Who among the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Cricket?
1. Wasim Akram 2. Richard Hadlee
3. Glen McGrath 4. Courtney Walsh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) I, 2, 3 and 4
36. Which one of the following places was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave's Bhoodan Movement at the beginning of the movement?
(a) Udaygiri (b) Raipur
(c) Pochampalli (d) Venkatagiri
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Company)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group
B. Tulsi R. Tanti 2. Info Edge India (which
runs naukri.com)
3. Indian (Indian Airlines)
4. Suzlon Energy
C. Shashi Ruia
D. S. Bikhchandani
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 3 2 3
D
3 2 3 2
B 4 1 1 4
C
1 4 4 1
38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
(a) Services - Industry - Agriculture (b) Services - Agriculture - Industry (c) Industry - Services - Agriculture (d) Industry - Agriculture - Services
39. Consider the following statements:
1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organisation which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO
when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40.
In how many maximum different ways can 3 identical balls be placed in the 12 squares (each ball to-jJepiaced in the exact centre of the squares and only one ball is to be placed in one square) shown in the figure given above such that they do not lie along the same straight line?
(a) 144 (c) 204
(b) 200 (d) 216
Ans: 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
Question Answers from UPSC Test Paper 2007
13. Consider the following statements:
1. In the year 2006, India successfully tested a full¬
fledged cryogenic state in rocketry.
2. After USA, Russia and China, India is the only
country to have acquired the capability for use
of cryogenic stage in rocketry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following statements:
1. In November, 2006, DRDO successfully conducted
the interception tests using Prithvi-II missile.
2. Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can
be deployed to guard the metros against air
attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
a) T.S.
(b) K.c. Pant
(c) A.M. Khusro
(d) R.c. Lahoti
16.
Former Chief Election Krishnamurthy Commissioner of India Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission Former Chief Justice of India
B
(Each small circle represents a different station)
What is the maximum number of different paths that
exist between the station A and the station B?
(a) (c)
(b) 31 (d) 35
28 33
17. Amit has five friends: 3 girls and 2 boys. Amit's wife also has 5 friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit's friends and two are his wife's?
(a) (c)
(b) 38 (d) 58
24 46
18. Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three
different boxes such that any box contains at least one
ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
(a) (c)
90 150
(b) 120 (d) 180
19. All the six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in anyone word. The words so formed are then arranged as in a dictionary. What will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence?
(a) 436 (b) 590
(c) 601 (d) 751
20. Three dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6) are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2?
(a) (c)
36 91
(b) 81 (d) 116
21. Who among the following is considered as the inven¬
tor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?
(a) Edward Kasner (b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee (d) Vinod Dham
22. Who was Leander Paes's partner when he won
Doubles Final in the US Open Tennis Tournament,
2oo6?
(a) Max Mirnyi (c) Bob Bryan
(b) Martin Damm (d) Mike Bryan
23. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
(a) Buenos Aires (b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Rio de Janeiro (d) Valletta ..
24. Which one of the following cities has been the venue of the Asian Games for the maximum number of times from the year 1951 to the year 2006?
(a) Delhi (b) Bangkok
(c) Tokyo' (d) Beijing
25. Where are the headquarters of the Organisation of the Islamic Conference (Ole) located?
(a) Dubai (b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad (d) Ankara
26. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?
(a) Cyanohydrin (b) Dextran
(c) Cyclohexane (d) Cyclonite
27. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
(a) Sulphur
(c) Bromine
(b) Selenium (d) Phosphorus
28. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off
ultraviolet rays?
(a) Soda glass
(c) Jena glass
(b) Pyrex glass (d) Crookes glass
Ans: 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d)
1. In the year 2006, India successfully tested a full¬
fledged cryogenic state in rocketry.
2. After USA, Russia and China, India is the only
country to have acquired the capability for use
of cryogenic stage in rocketry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following statements:
1. In November, 2006, DRDO successfully conducted
the interception tests using Prithvi-II missile.
2. Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can
be deployed to guard the metros against air
attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
a) T.S.
(b) K.c. Pant
(c) A.M. Khusro
(d) R.c. Lahoti
16.
Former Chief Election Krishnamurthy Commissioner of India Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission Former Chief Justice of India
B
(Each small circle represents a different station)
What is the maximum number of different paths that
exist between the station A and the station B?
(a) (c)
(b) 31 (d) 35
28 33
17. Amit has five friends: 3 girls and 2 boys. Amit's wife also has 5 friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit's friends and two are his wife's?
(a) (c)
(b) 38 (d) 58
24 46
18. Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three
different boxes such that any box contains at least one
ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
(a) (c)
90 150
(b) 120 (d) 180
19. All the six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in anyone word. The words so formed are then arranged as in a dictionary. What will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence?
(a) 436 (b) 590
(c) 601 (d) 751
20. Three dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6) are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2?
(a) (c)
36 91
(b) 81 (d) 116
21. Who among the following is considered as the inven¬
tor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?
(a) Edward Kasner (b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee (d) Vinod Dham
22. Who was Leander Paes's partner when he won
Doubles Final in the US Open Tennis Tournament,
2oo6?
(a) Max Mirnyi (c) Bob Bryan
(b) Martin Damm (d) Mike Bryan
23. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
(a) Buenos Aires (b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Rio de Janeiro (d) Valletta ..
24. Which one of the following cities has been the venue of the Asian Games for the maximum number of times from the year 1951 to the year 2006?
(a) Delhi (b) Bangkok
(c) Tokyo' (d) Beijing
25. Where are the headquarters of the Organisation of the Islamic Conference (Ole) located?
(a) Dubai (b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad (d) Ankara
26. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?
(a) Cyanohydrin (b) Dextran
(c) Cyclohexane (d) Cyclonite
27. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
(a) Sulphur
(c) Bromine
(b) Selenium (d) Phosphorus
28. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off
ultraviolet rays?
(a) Soda glass
(c) Jena glass
(b) Pyrex glass (d) Crookes glass
Ans: 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d)
Test paper 2007
1. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane
Declaration in October 2006?
(a) China and South Africa
(b) India and South Africa
(c) South Africa and Botswana
(d) Saudi Arabia and South Africa
2. Recently, the European Union and other six countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was not a signatory to it?
(a) Canada (b) China
(c) Japan (d) USA
3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Known As)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini Govind 3. Mridangam maestro D. T.V. Gopalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 3 2 3
D
3 2 3 2
B
1 1 4 4
C
4 4 1 1
4. Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China?
(a) Chang La (b) Jara La
(c) Nathu La (d) Shipki La
5. How is Steve Fossett known as?
(a) As a crocodile hunter
(b) For completing the longest non-stop flight around
the globe
(c) For swimming across Atlantic Ocean
(d) For climbing to Mt. Everest without any
co-climber
6. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
(a) International standards for safety in civil aviation (b) Measures against cyber crimes
(c) Measures against drug abuse by sportspersons (d) International standards for measuring the
adequacy of a bank's capital
7. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Position/Orgallisations)
A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
B. Margaret Chan 2. Speaker, U.S. House of
Representatives
3. WHO
4. Microsoft
C. Pascal Lamy D. Steve Ballmer Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 4 2 4
B
1 3 3 1
C
3 1 1 3
D
4 2 4 2
8. In which one of the Automotive Research (a) Chennai
(c) Pune
following cities is the Centre being set up?
(b) Hyderabad (d) Gurgaon
Global
9. Consider the. following statements:
1. Republicans won the majority in the US House
of Representatives Elections held in the year 2006.
2. Republican Bobby Jindal, won a seat in the US
House of Representatives for the second time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. What is the broad area in which the Nobel Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine, worked to get the Prize?
(a) Prevention of weakening due to ageing
(b) Flow of genetic information
(c) Immunology and disease resistance
(d) Adult stem-cell research
f
11. In which one the following districts, have large reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the recent past?
(a) Hoshangabad (b) Raipur
(c) Sambalpur (d) Warangal
12. Which one of the following countries is planning to construct a rival to the Panama Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
(a) Colombia
(c) Guatemala
(b) ~Costa Rica (d) Nicaragua
Ans: 1. (b 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d)
Declaration in October 2006?
(a) China and South Africa
(b) India and South Africa
(c) South Africa and Botswana
(d) Saudi Arabia and South Africa
2. Recently, the European Union and other six countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was not a signatory to it?
(a) Canada (b) China
(c) Japan (d) USA
3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Known As)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini Govind 3. Mridangam maestro D. T.V. Gopalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 3 2 3
D
3 2 3 2
B
1 1 4 4
C
4 4 1 1
4. Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China?
(a) Chang La (b) Jara La
(c) Nathu La (d) Shipki La
5. How is Steve Fossett known as?
(a) As a crocodile hunter
(b) For completing the longest non-stop flight around
the globe
(c) For swimming across Atlantic Ocean
(d) For climbing to Mt. Everest without any
co-climber
6. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
(a) International standards for safety in civil aviation (b) Measures against cyber crimes
(c) Measures against drug abuse by sportspersons (d) International standards for measuring the
adequacy of a bank's capital
7. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Position/Orgallisations)
A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
B. Margaret Chan 2. Speaker, U.S. House of
Representatives
3. WHO
4. Microsoft
C. Pascal Lamy D. Steve Ballmer Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 4 2 4
B
1 3 3 1
C
3 1 1 3
D
4 2 4 2
8. In which one of the Automotive Research (a) Chennai
(c) Pune
following cities is the Centre being set up?
(b) Hyderabad (d) Gurgaon
Global
9. Consider the. following statements:
1. Republicans won the majority in the US House
of Representatives Elections held in the year 2006.
2. Republican Bobby Jindal, won a seat in the US
House of Representatives for the second time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. What is the broad area in which the Nobel Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine, worked to get the Prize?
(a) Prevention of weakening due to ageing
(b) Flow of genetic information
(c) Immunology and disease resistance
(d) Adult stem-cell research
f
11. In which one the following districts, have large reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the recent past?
(a) Hoshangabad (b) Raipur
(c) Sambalpur (d) Warangal
12. Which one of the following countries is planning to construct a rival to the Panama Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
(a) Colombia
(c) Guatemala
(b) ~Costa Rica (d) Nicaragua
Ans: 1. (b 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d)
Scheme of Subjects for the Preliminary & Main Examinations
A. Preliminary Examination
The examination will consist of two papers.
| Paper I General Studies | 150 marks |
| Paper II One subject to be selected from the list of optional subjects set out in Para 2 below | 300 marks |
| Total : | 450 marks |
2. List of optional subjects for Preliminary Examination.
|
|
Note (i) Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions).
(ii) The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English.
(iii) The course content of the syllabi for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. Details of the syllabi are indicated in Part A of Section III.
(iv) Each paper will be of two hours duration. Blind candidates will, however, be allowed an extra time of twenty minutes at each paper.
B. Main Examination
The written examination will consist of the following papers :
| Paper I | One of the Indian languages to be selected by the candidate from the Languages included in the Eighth Scheduled to the Constitution. | 300 marks |
|---|---|---|
| Paper II | English | 300 marks |
| Paper III | Essay | 200 marks |
| Papers IV and V | General Studies | 300 marks for each paper |
| Papers VI, VII, VIII and IX | Any two subjects to be selected from the list of the optional subjects set out in para 2 below. Each subject will have two papers. | 300 marks for each paper |
Interview Test will carry 300 marks.
Note (i) The papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature; the marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.
(ii) The papers on Essay, General Studies and Optional Subjects of only such candidates will be evaluated as attain such minimum standard as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion for the qualifying papers on Indian Language and English.
(iii) The paper-I on Indian Languages will not, however, be compulsory for candidates hailing from the North-Eastern States of Arunachanl Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and also for candidates hailing from the State of Sikkim.
(iv) For the Language papers, the script to be used by the candidates will be as under :–
Language Script
- Assamese
- Assamese
- Bengali
- Bengali
- Bodo
- Devanagari
- Dogri
- Devanagari
- Gujarati
- Gujarati
- Hindi
- Devanagari
- Kannada
- Kannada
- Kashmiri
- Persian
- Konkani
- Devanagari
- Maithili
- Devanagari
- Malayam
- Malayalam
- Manipuri
- Bengali
- Marathi
- Devanagari
- Nepali
- Devanagari
- Oriya
- Oriya
- Punjabi
- Gurmukhi
- Sanskrit
- Devanagari
- Santhali
- Devanagari or Olchiki
- Sindhi
- Devanagari or Arabic
- Tamil
- Tamil
- Telugu
- Telugu
- Urdu
- Persian
Note:- For Santhali language, question paper will be printed in Devanagari script; but candidates will be free to answer either in Devanagari script or in Olchiki.
2. List of optional subjects for Main Examination
- Agriculture
- Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
- Anthropology
- Botany
- Chemistry
- Civil Engineering
- Commerce and Accountancy
- Economics
- Electrical Engineering
- Geography
- Geology
- History
- Law
- Management
- Mathematics
- Mechanical Engineering
- Medical Science
- Philosophy
- Physics
- Political Science and International Relations
- Psychology
- Public Administration
- Sociology
- Statistics
- Zoology
Literature of one of the following languages :
Arabic, Assamese, Bodo, Bengali, Dogri, Chinese, English, French, German, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Pali, Persian, Punjabi, Russian, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu.
Note (i) Candidates will not be allowed to offer the following combinations of subjects :–
(a) Political Science & International Relations and Public Administration;
(b) Commerce & Accountancy and Management;
(c) Anthropology and Sociology;
(d) Mathematics and Statistics;
(e) Agriculture and Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science.
(f) Management and Public Administration;
(g) Of the Engineering subjects, viz., Civil Engineering, Electrical Engineering and Mechanical Engineering–not more than one subject.
(h) Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science and Medical Science.(ii) The question papers for the examination will be of conventional (essay) type.
(iii) Each paper will be of three hours duration. Blind candidates will, however be allowed an extra time of thirty minutes at each paper.
(iv) Candidates will have the option to answer all the question papers, except the language papers viz. Papers I and II above in any one of the languages in cluded in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution or in English.(v) Candidates exercising the option to answer papers III to IX in any one of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution may, if they so desire, give English version within brackets of only the description of the technical terms, if any, in addition to the version in the language opted by them.
Candidates should, however, note that if they misuse the above rule, a deduction will be made on this account from the total marks otherwise accruing to them and in extreme cases, their script(s) will not be valued for being in an unauthorised medium.
(vi) The question papers other than language papers will be set both in Hindi and English.
(vii) The details of the syllabi are set out in Part B of Section III
General Instructions (Preliminary as well as Main Examination) :
(i) Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances, will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them. However, blind candidates will be allowed to write the examination with the help of a scribe.
(ii) An extra time of twenty minutes per hour shall be permitted for the candidates with locomotors disability and cerebral palsy where dominant (writing) extremity is affected to the extent of slowing the performance of function (minimum of 40% impairment) in the Civil Services (Main) Examination only. However, no scribe shall be permitted to such candidates.
Note (1) : The eligibility conditions of a scribe, his/her conduct inside the examination hall and the manner in which and extent to which he/she can help the blind candidate in writing the Civil Services Examination shall be governed by the instructions issued by the UPSC in this regard. Violation of all or any of the said instructions shall entail the cancellation of the candidature of the blind candidate in addition to any other action that the UPSC may take against the scribe.
Note (2) : For purpose of these rules the candidate shall be deemed to be a blind candidate if the percentage of visual impairment is 40% or more. The criteria for determining the percentage of visual impairment shall be as follows :
All with corrections Percentage
Better eye Worse eye
Category 0 6/9-6/18 6/24 to 6/36 20%
Category I 6/18-6/36 6/60 to nil 40%
Category II 6/60-4/60 3/60 to nil 75%
or field of
vision 10-20º
Category III 3/60-1/60 F.C. at 1 ft 100%
or field of to nil
vision 10º
Category IV FC. at 1 ft F.C. at 1 ft 100%
to nil field of to nil field of
vision 100º vision 100º
One eyed 6/6 F.C. at 1 ft 30%
person to nil
Note (3) :For availing of the concession admissible to a blind candidate, the candidate concerned shall produce a certificate in the prescribed proforma from a Medical Board constituted by the Central/State Governments alongwith his application for the Main Examination.
Note (4) : The concession admissible to blind candidates shall not be admissible to those suffering from Myopia.
(ii) The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
(iii) If a candidate's handwriting is not easily legible, a deduction will be made on this account from the total marks otherwise accruing to him.
(iv) Marks will not be allotted for mere superficial knowledge.
(v) Credit will be given for orderly, effective and exact expression combined with due economy of words in all subjects of the examination.
(vi) In the question papers, wherever required, SI units will be used.
(vii) Candidates should use only international form of Indian numerals (i.e. 1,2,3,4,5,6 etc.) while answering question papers.
(viii) Candidates will be allowed the use of Scientific (Non-Programmable type) calculators at the conventional (Essay) type examination of UPSC. Programmable type calculators will however not be allowed and the use of such calculators shall tantamount to resorting to unfair means by the candidates. Loaning or interchanging of calculators in the Examination Hall is not permitted.
It is also important to note that candidates are not permitted to use calculators for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
C. Interview test
The candidate will be interviewed by a Board who will have before them a record of his career. He will be asked questions on matters of general interest. The object of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a Board of competent and unbiased observers. The test is intended to judge the mental calibre of a candidate. In broad terms this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his interst in current affairs. Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgement, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.
2. The technique of the interview is not that of a strict cross-examination but of a natural, though directed and purposive conversation which is intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate.
3. The interview test is not intended to be a test either of the specialised or general knowledge of the candidates which has been already tested through their written papers. Candidates are expected to have taken an intelligent interest not only in their special subjects of academic study but also in the events which are happening around them both within and outside their own state or country as well as in modern currents of thought and in new discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well educated youth.
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